
I've spent what spare time I have researching a little bit about the philosophy behind the freedom of speech and listening intently to Dr Brandenburg’s lectures in order to write this piece. It is a break from the usual strongly worded politics that I am fond of and instead forms a response to a comment on a previous piece by a reader. Now that I do finally write this, I am more convinced of my position than before. The right to the freedom of speech is an absolute right in all senses, and it should be put before any other considerations.
So what is a “right”? Is it my right to speak out? Is it my right to express myself? Is it my right to insult you, be racist or bully you for your political or religious beliefs? It most certainly isn’t. What a right is should be more accurately described as what a right is not. However much people claim that they have a right to say something or do something, it was not the intention of the First Amendment.
“Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the government for a redress of grievances.”
A right is not in favour of any action by the people. On the contrary, it is against the notion of the interference of government in the life or actions of an individual. One has the right not to have one’s ability to speak freely abridged by government, and is thus free to criticise it. Thomas Jefferson said that “no just government should refuse” a Bill of Rights “against every government”. He describes rights well as a fundamentally negative concept. They restrict the role of the state and ensure that the people can continue to live in freedom and with dignity.
What, then, is “freedom” of speech beyond criticism of government? Should it come with responsibilities, or is a catch all term that results in an “anything goes” society? The freedom to express one’s self, as it should be described, is an absolute right that belongs to individuals and it those individuals who are responsible for its proper administration. Thus, freedoms come as a protection from government overstretch and are subject to the individual perceptions of members of society who utilise them, and it rests on their shoulders to ensure that society remains harmonious and free.
Unfortunately, this acknowledgement of responsibility isn’t always the case. John Stuart Mill said:
“the only purpose for which power can be rightfully exercised over any member of a civilised community, against his will, is to prevent harm to others.”He also thought that to prevent the expression of an opinion may equate to the perversion of the truth. In order to maintain a good society with justice, order and well-being, it is necessary to allow the truth to prevail. These two thoughts seem to contradict each other, in that the former imposes restrictions on the latter which the latter refuses to advocate – what if the truth causes harm?
Here, responsibility comes into play. Truth, as Mill rightly says, must be ever present in society. If it does harm to an individual, is a violation of the harm principle? Mill described the individual as sovereign, and only restricts his right to sovereignty under that principle. I believe that the right to express one’s self is a personal matter, one which cannot be prevented by any other individual and is the sovereign right of that individual. If the individual feels that it is necessary to express the truth, it must be a right which is granted in order to maintain civil society, at the expense of harm caused. To suppress the truth is often to the detriment of society and infringes the individual’s right to liberty by deceiving them – truth and enlightenment are what grant liberties.
An example put to me by a reader to contradict this thought of absolute individual sovereignty and support Mill’s point of responsibility was that of violent pornography and hate speech. I shall address these in order. The former is a form of expression that most civilised societies must accept, and is a personal choice that must be protected from the interference of an overbearing state. If society does not advocate the actions in the violent pornographic material, this is of no real concern. What matters is that the individuals concerned are freely able to choose which actions they take. In this case, the participants would have to be consenting and thus the violence is counterbalanced by permission and the matter becomes purely individual.
If, however, the participants are not consenting, this is a direct violation of Mill’s harm principle, as the reader suggested. In such a scenario, the right of one individual to express themselves has violated the right of another. The two conflicting rights must then be adjudicated. Although I have not read Mill extensively, from my understanding, as a utilitarian he would most likely argue that the correct moral position would be that of benefit to the greatest number of people. Such is his concept of justice.
My own conscience tells me that in a situation where a right to expression is utilised in a fashion which infringes the rights of another, this negates the rights of the former due to an activity not acceptable on any moral basis. Rights are absolute and are individual, but they are absolute for all individuals. To restrict the rights of another individual thus results in the forfeiture of your individual rights. Order is kept by the application of morals in the execution of rights.
To use the reader’s example of “hate speech” is slightly more tenuous. That speech which infringes the right of another is most certainly an unacceptable deed. However, that which does not is an exercise in the proper and free administration of rights. Does it really cause harm to anybody if someone says something racist, or sticks their arm in the air in a Nazi salute? Bullying is another issue entirely, in my opinion, because this is expression with the intent to harm and is therefore an abuse of rights in favour of the diminishing of the rights of another. In the case of expression without the intent to harm, can anyone really dispute this use of freedom?
I believe in the individual as the supreme source of sovereignty and legitimacy. Group rights are of no major concern to me, but the rights of individuals to join a group or the rights of individuals within that group most certainly are. For example, if I take the position of one of the editorials in Vox Pop, Burke, and choose to express my dislike of nationalism by bashing a nationalist over the head with a large blunt object, am I infringing the rights of an individual or a group?
In this case, it is the group which gives me the motivation to utilise the large blunt object, but it is the individual whose rights are infringed. Likewise, if I collectively bash all nationalists over the head with said large blunt object, it is not the rights of the group that are infringed, but the rights of every individual within that group – in this case, the right to life (should I bash hard enough and blunt enough) or safety. The simultaneous use of the individuals’ right to assemble is irrelevant in the consideration of which rights are being infringed by the use of the large blunt object; either way it is to the detriment of the rights of another individual, whether that is a single nationalist or many.
With reference to a previous piece I wrote, despite the lack of express rights for a group, the First Amendment grants the freedom of assembly in addition to the freedom of expression. In order to avoid contradicting myself, it may be necessary to clarify my views. Is it not fitting that a collective of individuals can unanimously express themselves when assembled? I am firm in my stance that the right of an individual is the most important right of all and that a group does not possess rights, but the rights of many individuals is yet more important still. I believe that Justice Ginsburg was wrong to state that the freedom of expression by corporations was of no concern because they are not “endowed by [their] creator[s] with inalienable rights”. A corporation, although not its self endowed with rights, is an assembly of individuals, all of whom do possess and may execute their inalienable rights. With this thought, a corporation is acting through individuals, not vice versa, and thus is protected by the First Amendment.
The constitutional protections on the freedom of expression are described in terms of negative liberties. They are freedoms from the state. Many of the rights described in the Constitution also suggest negative liberties, but all of them express the right of an individual in some way or another. The individual is what matters, and the absolute protection of their liberties is essential to a functioning civil society. In the case of infringement of the rights of another, it is right and proper to protect the liberty of the victim – only in a state of perpetual liberty can society remain civil, although this may be a little unrealistic.
The argument could thus continue: who would ensure that liberties are protected? To what extent should those liberties be protected? Who has the right to be a judge of morality – is it absolute or perceived? These are not questions I would like to get into now, but are worth deep consideration. What I think is most worthy of your thoughts at this juncture is whether society is a valid institution, and if the individual has the capacity for morality. Does a group of individuals expressing themselves together increase the morality of each? Is it necessary to have a state to protect these rights altogether? Why not a contract for a society of individuals? I’m going back to the library...
Thomas Jefferson photo courtesy of Wallyg at Flickr.com



.png)

.jpg)
.jpg)
.jpg)
.jpg)




